1

 

An element can be easily identified by the number of:

protons

2

 

90% of the human body is composed of just three elements.  They are:

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

3

 

The smallest unit of an element that still retains the chemical and physical properties of that element is called:

atom

4

 

A covalent bond is:

a sharing of electrons between two atoms

5

 

An ionic bond is:

the transfer of electrons from one atom to another

6

 

The nucleus of an atom is composed of:

protons, neutrons, electrons

7

 

Particles that carry either a positive(+) or negative(-) charge are called:

ions

8

 

In water, hydrogen bonding occurs between the hydrogen atom in one molecule and:

an oxygen atom in a different molecule

9

 

As pH drops, what effects are there on hydrogen ion concentration and acidity?

greater hydrogen ion concentration, more acidic solution, lower hydroxide ion concentration

10

 

A base is a molecule that either takes up hydrogen ions or releases hydroxide ions.  (True or False)

TRUE

11

 

An acid is a molecule that releases hydrogen ions in solution.  (true or false)

TRUE

12

 

A buffer does what?

resists changes in pH

13

 

Joining small molecules (monomers) together to form longer chains (polymers) requires a process called:

condensation synthesis

14

 

The storage form of glucose in animals is:

glycogen

15

 

The class of organic compounds that are insoluble in water are:

lipids

16

 

The sequence of amino acids joined together in a protein refers to the:

primary sequence

17

 

The protein structure of alpha helix and beta pleated sheets refers to the:

secondary sequence

18

 

Most enzymes are classified as what type of molecule:

proteins

19

 

The process of changing the 3-dimensional structure of proteins is called:

denaturation

20

 

Which molecule is the energy “currency” of cells?

ATP

21

 

The building blocks of a nucleic acid are:

nucleotides

22

 

Which of the following is referred to as the double helix?

DNA

23

 

The fundamental units that make up all living things are called:

cells

24

 

Concerning cell surface/volume ratios, surface area is improtant because __________________, volume of the cell represents _____________, and what happens as volume increases?

surface area reflects ability to exchange materials, volume reflects metabolic needs, as the volume increases/relative surface area does not increase at the same rate

25

 

The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called a:

plasma membrane or cell membrane

26

 

Small membranous structures that occur within the cell and have various functions are referred to as:

organelles

27

 

The function of the plasma membrane is:

to determine which substances enter and leave the cell, serves as a boundary between the cell and its enviornment, contains receptor sites which determine hos the cell interacts with its enviornment

28

 

Which of the following serves as a packaging center for secretory products?

golgi apparatus

29

 

Which of the following is the primary source of ATP production?

mitochondirion

30

 

Which organelle contains digestive enzymes for intracellular digestion?

lysosome

31

 

Proteins attached to the surfaces of the cell membrane are called:

peripheral protein

32

 

The fact that lipids move easily through plasma membranes is due to:

chemical composition of lipids

33

 

The process whereby small molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is:

diffusion

34

 

The diffusion of water across a permeable membrane is called:

osmosis

35

 

A hypertonic solution contains:

greater concentration of solute than the cytoplasm contains

36

 

A cell in a hypotonic solution:

gains water

37

 

A cell in a hypertonic solution:

loses water

38

 

A cell in an isotonic solution:

gains and loses the same amount of water

39

 

Particles, which dissolve within a solution, are called:

solute

40

 

The liquid which particles are dissolved in is called the:

solvent

41

 

Distilled water is 100% water with no solutes. A cell placed in distilled water will:

swell and burst

42

 

The assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without expenditure of energy is:

facilitated transport

43

 

The assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient requiring the use of energy is:

active transport

44

 

If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to:

synthesize proteins

45

 

Organelles responsible for chemical energy in the cell are:

mitochondirion

46

 

The sum of all of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell collectively are called:

metabolism

47

 

Enzymes:

speed up metabolic reactions

48

 

The substance that an enzyme works upon is called a:

substrate

49

 

The site upon the enzyme that interacts with the molecule it works upon is called:

active site

50

 

The process whereby cells completely break down glucose to CO2 and water for energy is:

cellular respiration

51

 

Specialized cells that together perform a common function are called:

tissues

52

 

Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines cavities?

epithelial tissue

53

 

Which type of tissues binds structures together and provides structural support?

connective tissue

54

 

Which type of tissue is specialized for conduction of impulses?

nervous tissue

55

 

Any invading organism (virus or bacterium) that can cause disease in humans are called:

pathogens

56

 

Epithelium which consists of a single layer of cells is called:

simple epithelium

57

 

Epithelia that secrete a product, whether a single cell, or many cells, is described as:

a gland

58

 

The type of gland that secretes through a duct or tube is called:

exocrine

59

 

The type of gland that secretes their product directly into the blood stream are called:

endocrine

60

 

The type of cellular junction that forms an impermeable barrier, where plasma membranes join is called:

tight junction

61

 

The type of cellular junction that forms when a channel is formed between two adjacent plasma membranes is:

gap junction

62

 

The type of cellular junction that forms when adjacent plasma membranes have filaments that firmly attached at button-like thickenings are:

adhesion junction

63

 

The type of connective tissue that is solid yet flexible, is found at the joints, nose, ears, discs between the vertebra, and other places is:

cartilage

64

 

The most rigid type of connective tissue is:

bone

65

 

The type of connective tissue that has a fluid matrix is:

blood

66

 

Small biconcave red cells that lack a nucleus, are found within blood and carry oxygen are called:

red blood cells

67

 

Large translucent phagocytic or disease fighting cells with a nucleus are called:

white blood cells

68

 

Fragments of cells that form a plug, sealing holes in injured vessels during blood clotting are:

platelets

69

 

The type of tissue that contain actin and myosin filaments, and accounts for (contractile) movement is:

muscular tissue

70

 

Skeletal muscle is characterized as:

voluntary and striated

71

 

Which of the following exhibits the property of autorhymicity:

cardiac tissue

72

 

The specialized cell in the nervous system that conducts signals is:

neuron

73

 

The cells of the nervous system that have specialized helper functions and outnumber the neurons 9 to 1 are:

glia and neuroglia

74

 

The type of homeostatic mechanism that reduces any changes or keeps a variable close to a particular point is called:

negative feedback

75

 

The type of mechanism that brings about an ever increasing change in the same direction is called:

positive feedback

76

 

The regulation of body temperature is an example of:

homeostasis

77

 

The small red biconcave discs (red blood cells) are also called:

erythrocytes

78

 

Mature human red blood cells:

are biconcave disks with no nucleus

79

 

The respiratory pigment responsible for carrying oxygen within RBCs is:

hemoglobin

80

 

Which of the following continuously divide producing new cells?

stem cells

81

 

Red blood cell production is stimulated by:

erythropoietin

82

 

When blood cells are broken down:

iron is returned to bone marrow, bilirubin, bilverdin contricute to color of feces, globin is broken down to amino acids, and the spleen and liver are involved

83

 

Neutrophils and lymphocytes are types of:

white blood cells

84

 

Which kind of WBC is involved in the production of antibodies?

lymphocytes, specifically B cells

85

 

The most abundant WBC is:

neutrophils

86

 

The first leukocyte to respond to infection is the:

neutrophils

87

 

T cells and B cells are different types of:

lymphocytes, specifically B cells

88

 

The molecules found on invading pathogens that allow them to be recognized as foreign are:

antigens

89

 

The proteins released by B cells as a defense mechanism of the body are called:

antibodies

90

 

The function of blood platelets is:

clotting

91

 

The fragmentation of very large cells (megakaryocytes) results in the production of:

thrombocytes or platelets

92

 

The final reaction in blood clotting is:

fibrinogen into fibrin

93

 

The system that retrieves excess tissue fluid, filters, cleans and returns it to the blood is:

the lymphatic system

94

 

The term that refers to excess tissue fluid build-up or swelling of tissues is:

edema

95

 

Choose the correct statement concerning the ABO blood typing system. If your blood type is O:

you have anti-A antibodies and you have anti-B antibodies

96

 

Choose the correct statement concerning the ABO blood typing system. If your blood type is A:

you have anti-B antibodies and you have A antigens

97

 

Choose the CORRECT statement concerning the ABO blood typing system. If your blood type is B:

you have anti-A antibodies and you have B antigens

98

 

Choose the CORRECT statement concerning the ABO blood typing system. If your blood type is AB:

you have no antibodies and you have A and B antigens

99

 

Rh positive red blood cells:

have Rh antigen

100

 

Which of the following blood vessels are the only ones small, thin, and porous enough to exchange substances to the tissue cells?

capillaries

101

 

Which of the following blood vessels carries blood away from the heart?

arteries

102

 

Vasoconstriction results from:

contraction of smooth muscle

103

 

In the human 4 chambered heart, what side are the aorta and mitral valve:

the aorta and the mitral valve are on the same side

104

 

Systole corresponds to:

heart muscle contraction

105

 

A person's blood pressure is 130/80. The lower number represents:

iastolic pressure

106

 

Oxygenated blood flows through which:  pulmonary artery, systemic artery, coronary artery, pulmonary vein?

all except pulmonary artery

107

 

Which structure initiates the normal contraction impulse in the heart.

SA node

108

 

Which structure conducts the contraction impulse from the atria to the ventricles?

AV node

109

 

The cardiovascular system includes two circuits:

systemic and plumonary

110

 

Which side of the heart pumps blood to the pulmonary circuit?

right side

111

 

The lymphatic system:

takes up excess tissue fluid, returning it to the bloodstream, absorbs fats in the intestines, helps the body defend against disease

112

 

Once tissue fluid has entered the lymph vessel it is called:

lymph

113

 

Which lymphoid organ has sinuses that are filled with blood instead of lymph?

spleen

114

 

Immunity is based on the recognition of:

antigens, self, and foreign proteins

115

 

What are included within nonspecific defenses.

barriers to entry, protective proteins, inflammatory reaction, and natural killer cells 

116

 

Which are large phagocytic cells?

macrophages

117

 

Which are chemical mediators?

histamines, kinins

118

 

Interferon is a protection against:

viral infections

119

 

Immune complement:

is a group of plasma proteins

120

 

Any foreign substance that stimulates the immune system is called:

antigen

121

 

In humans, B lymphocytes develop in the:

bone marrow

122

 

Where do lymphocytes travel to become mature T lymphocytes?

thymus

123

 

A mature B cell that mass produces antibodies is called a:

plasma cell

124

 

John was immunized against (vaccinated for) most of the childhood diseases. What type of immunity is this?

active immunity

125

 

Protein digestion begins in the:

stomach

126

 

Which of the following functions in the storage and elimination of feces?

large intestines

127

 

Food is prevented from entering the trachea when you swallow by the:

epiglottis

128

 

Which of the following is a muscular tube that passes foodstuffs from the mouth to the stomach?

esophagus

129

 

The primary function of the stomach is:

to store food, churn, and begin digestion

130

 

The rhythmic contractions of the digestive tract that allow movement of foodstuffs are called:

peristalsis

131

 

The “ball” of food that is moved through the esophagus is called:

bolus

132

 

The thick soupy acidic liquid that leaves the stomach is called:

chyme

133

 

Food is primarily digested by the:

small intestines

134

 

Starch digestion is confined to the:

mouth and small intestines

135

 

The pancreas secretes enzymes that act upon:

carbohydrates, fat, and proteins

136

 

The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are:

lacteals

137

 

Too much water in the intestines can produce:

diarrhea

138

 

The substance that activates pepsinogen to form active protein digesting pepsin in the stomach is:

HCl

139

 

The maintenance of an optimal internal environment is called:

homeostasis

140

 

A muscle which opposes the action of another muscle is called the:

antagonist

141

 

Which muscle filament has cross-bridges?

myosin

142

 

Which muscle filament utilizes ATP?

myosin

143

 

A sarcomere:

gets shorter when it contracts

144

 

Myosin binds to actin:

upon the release of calcium ions from storage sacs and by means of cross-bridges

145

 

At a neuromuscular junction, nerve impulses cause:

the release of acetylcholine

146

 

From largest to smallest, which of the following is in the correct order for muscle structure?

muscle, muscle cells, myofibrils, sarcomeres, myosin filaments, actin filaments

147

 

The brain and spinal cord are referred to as the:

CNS or central nervous system

148

 

Choose, in general, the difference between the actions of the endocrine system as compared to the nervous system.

the endocrine system is slower, longer lasting, and secretes hormones

149

 

Which cell type functions to transmit information?

neuron

150

 

Cells in the nervous system which have various functions related to support and nourishment are called:

neuroglia

151

 

Which type of neuron functions as a connection between neurons?

interneuron

152

 

Which of the following is a gap in the myelin sheath?

Node of Ranvier

153

 

The function of the myelin sheath is to:

increase the rate of impluse transmission

154

 

The region of a neuron which contains the nucleus and most of the intracellular structures is the:

cell body

155

 

The portion of the neuron that conducts impulses away from the cell body is the:

axon

156

 

The portion of the neuron that conducts impulses toward the cell body after receiving them from other neurons is the:

dendrite

157

 

The junction between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendrite of another is called a:

synapse

158

 

A neuron will generate an impulse, or “fire”, when the membrane potential reaches:

threshold

159

 

Upon excitation of a neuron:

positive charges move in, nerve fiber becomes depolarized, an impluse begins to flow, nerve cell membrane becomes permeable to sodium

160

 

Sodium is pumped out of a neuron:

by an expenditure of energy

161

 

After stimulation, a neuron repolarizes by:

the outward movement of potassium ions (K+)

162

 

Transmission across a synapse is dependent on the release of neurotransmitters. This movement of the neurotransmitters across a synaptic cleft is accomplished by:

diffusion

163

 

Which division of the peripheral nervous system innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands?

autonomic nervous system

164

 

Which division of the autonomic nervous system mediates the fight or flight responses?

sympathetic nervous system

165

 

Which of the following are also called the male gonads?

testes

166

 

The tightly coiled tube in which maturation of sperm occurs is the:

epididymis

167

 

What important process occurs in the epididymis?

sperm maturation

168

 

Which is the correct pairing of  male reproductive hormones to their descriptions?

GnRH from hypothalamus; testosterone, principle sex hormone; FSH and LH from anterior pituitary

169

 

The cap of enzymes on the head of a sperm is called the:

acrosome

170

 

The interstitial cells of the testes produce:

testosterone

171

 

It is advantageous to have human testes in the scrotum rather than in the abdomen due to:

a resulting lower temperature

172

 

In the human male, the tube used to carry both sperm and liquid wastes is the:

urethra

173

 

What is the correct sequence for the path of the sperm during ejaculation?

epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, glans penis

174

 

The female gonads are the:

ovaries

175

 

The process of producing an egg is called:

oogenesis

176

 

Ovulation involves:

rupture of a mature follicle and release of an ovum

177

 

The primary function of the corpus luteum is:

to produce progesterone

178

 

After ovulation, the ruptured follicle:

differentiates into the corpus luteum

179

 

Which of the following hormones maintains female secondary sex characteristics?

estrogen

180

 

The lining of the uterus that is discharged during the menstrual flow phase is the:

endometrium

181

 

The endometrium begins to thicken due to:

estrogen levels rising

182

 

In the human female, estrogen and progesterone exert feedback control over the:

pituitary gland

183

 

The genetic make-up of an individual is referred to as its:

genotype

184

 

Alternate forms of a gene having the same location (locus) on a pair of chromosomes affecting the same trait are called:

allele

185

 

The physical appearance of an individual is referred to as its:

phenotype

186

 

The letter notations A and a in genetics problems represent:

allelic genotype of an individual

187

 

Which of these indicates a recessive allele?

lower case letter

188

 

How do you designate homozygous alleles?

AA or aa

189

 

How do you designate heterozygous alleles?

Bb

190

 

During gametogenesis, what happens to the chromosome number:

the chromosome number is reduced

191

 

What statement would describe dominant/recessive traits.

the genotype determines the phenotype

192

 

In crossing two heterozygous parents, what are the chances for a pure recessive offspring?

25%

193

 

In crossing two heterozygous parents, what are the chances that an offspring will receive a dominant allele?

75%

194

 

In crossing a heterozygous parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what are the chances that an offspring will receive a dominant allele?

50%

195

 

In humans, red hair is recessive to dark hair. What are the chances of dark-haired parents having a red-haired child if each parent had one red-haired parent?

25%

196

 

A woman who can roll her tongue (dominant) is married to a man who cannot. Two of their four children can roll their tongues, and two cannot. If A = roll tongue and a = cannot roll tongue, then what is the genotype of the parents?

woman Aa x man aa

197

 

In the ABO blood system there are three alleles that determine the presence or absence of antigens. A person that inherited AO would be a blood type of:

A

198

 

In the ABO blood system there are three alleles that determine the presence or absence of antigens. A person that inherited AB would be a blood type of:

AB

199

 

In the ABO blood system there are three alleles that determine the presence or absence of antigens. A person that inherited OO would be a blood type of:

O

200

 

In a paternity suit the alleged father has blood type O, the mother blood type AB, and the baby has blood type B. What would a scientist say about this situation.

the alleged father could be the biological father

201

 

In a paternity suit the alleged father has blood type AB, the mother blood type O, and the baby has blood type O. What would a scientist say about this situation.

the alleged father could not be the biological father

202

 

In a paternity suit the alleged father has blood type AB, the mother blood type AB, and the baby has blood type O. What would a scientist say about this situation.

none of the parental blood types match the baby

203

 

When a heterozygote has an intermediate phenotype between that of either homozygote, it is called:

incomplete dominance

204

 

Inheritance of skin color is considered polygenic. If two medium-brown individuals married (AaBb ´ AaBb), the resulting children may be:

any skin color

205

 

Color blindness is an X-linked genetic disorder. Choose the following genotype that represents a female with normal vision, but is a carrier of the color blind gene.

XB Xb

206

 

Phenotypes expressed differently in males and females are called:

sex-influenced

207

 

The earth's primitive atmosphere formed by volcanic gases had little:

oxygen enters the blood from the alveoli and carbon dioxide leaves the blood

208

 

In the primitive earth, sources of energy included all what:

lightning, solar, UV radiation, radioisotpes, volcanoes and meteorites

209

 

An organism that takes in preformed food, and cannot manufacture its own food is called a:

heterotrophs

210

 

Eukaryotic cells are characterized by:

having a nucleus

211

 

Prokaryotic cells are characterized by:

not having a nucleus

212

 

The critical elements of Charles Darwin's theory include what elements:

survival of the fittest, variation, adaptation, and struggle for existence

213

 

Which of the following strongly indicates that organisms are related?

homologous structures

214

 

Natural selection favors those organisms that:

are able to survive and reproduce

215

 

In the year 2317, a group of human pioneers decides to colonize Mars.  The distance between Mars and Earth excludes the possibility of new members joining the colony or the members of the colony interbreeding with humans on Earth.  To avoid ____________________, the colonists carried a large bank of frozen ova and sperm donated by people remaining on Earth.

the founder effect

216

 

Over time, the size of the cheetah population has been decreased dramatically due to catastrophes associated with their environment.  Only approximately 15,000 cheetahs remain on Earth and they are almost all genetically identical.  This is an example of ___________.

the bottleneck effect